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The benefit in Obtaining the CISA Exam Certification
- CISA supports candidate knowledge and experience in the assigned region and shows their capacity for responding to any challenge.
- Candidates with this certification for the best part they earn 47.54% higher pay.
- A internationally accepted as the characteristic of excellence for the IS audit professional.
- CISA can likewise offer a profession jump as an advancement by separating candidates from different people who are not CISA confirmed
- Allows candidate capability in IS audit, control and security profession.
Information Systems Acquisition, Development, & Implementation: This subject will measure the candidates’ skills in the following subtopics:
- Information systems implementation – testing methodologies; system migration, data conversion, and infrastructure deployment; post-implementation review.
- Information system acquisition and development – project management and governance; control identification & design; system development methodologies; business case & feasibility analysis;
NEW QUESTION 473
An internal audit department recently established a quality assurance (QA) program. Which of the following activities is MOST important to include as part of the OA program requirements?
- A. Feedback from internal audit staff
- B. Ongoing monitoring of the audit activities
- C. Analysis of user satisfaction reports from business lines
- D. Long-term internal audit resource planning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 474
You may reduce a cracker's chances of success by (choose all that apply):
- A. hiring competent people responsible for security to scan and update your systems.
- B. using multiple firewalls.
- C. None of the choices.
- D. using multiple firewalls and IDS.
- E. keeping your systems up to date using a security scanner.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Only a small fraction of computer program code is mathematically proven, or even goes through comprehensive information technology audits or inexpensive but extremely valuable computer security audits, so it is quite possible for a determined cracker to read, copy, alter or destroy data in well secured computers, albeit at the cost of great time and resources. You may reduce a cracker's chances by keeping your systems up to date, using a security scanner or/and hiring competent people responsible for security.
NEW QUESTION 475
A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team. What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation?
- A. Spyware is installed on the system
- B. A Trojan is installed on the system
- C. Audit logs are not enabled for the system
- D. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove. Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user and, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult.
NEW QUESTION 476
Which of the following statement INCORRECTLY describes packet switching technique?
- A. Usually carries data-oriented data
- B. Fixed delays to reach each packet to destination
- C. Packet uses many different dynamic paths to get the same destination
- D. Traffic is usually burst in nature
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The word INCORRECTLY is the keyword used in the question. You need to find out a statement which is not valid about packet switching. As in the network switching, packet traverse different path, there will be always variable delay for each packet to reach to destination.
For your exam you should know below information about WAN message transmission technique:
Message Switching
Message switching is a network switching technique in which data is routed in its entirety from the source node to the destination node, one hope at a time. During message routing, every intermediate switch in the network stores the whole message. If the entire network's resources are engaged or the network becomes blocked, the message-switched network stores and delays the message until ample resources become available for effective transmission of the message.
Message Switching
Image from: http://ecomputernotes.com/images/Message-Switched-data-Network.jpg Packet Switching
Refers to protocols in which messages are divided into packets before they are sent. Each packet is then transmitted individually and can even follow different routes to its destination. Once all the packets forming a message arrive at the destination, they are recompiled into the original message.
Packet Switching
Image from: http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/f6/Packet_Switching.gif Circuit Switching
Circuit switching is a methodology of implementing a telecommunications network in which two network nodes establish a dedicated communications channel (circuit) through the network before the nodes may communicate.
The circuit guarantees the full bandwidth of the channel and remains connected for the duration of the session. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected similar to an electrical circuit.
The defining example of a circuit-switched network is the early analog telephone network. When a call is made from one telephone to another, switches within the telephone exchanges create a continuous wire circuit between the two telephones, for as long as the call lasts.
In circuit switching, the bit delay is constant during a connection, as opposed to packet switching, where packet queues may cause varying and potentially indefinitely long packet transfer delays. No circuit can be degraded by competing users because it is protected from use by other callers until the circuit is released and a new connection is set up. Even if no actual communication is taking place, the channel remains reserved and protected from competing users.
Circuit Switching
Image from: http://www.louiewong.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/09/Circuit_Switching.jpg See a table below comparing Circuit Switched versus Packet Switched networks:
Difference between Circuit and packet switching
Image from:http://www.hardware-one.com/reviews/network-guide-2/images/packet-vs-circuit.gif Virtual circuit
In telecommunications and computer networks, a virtual circuit (VC), synonymous with virtual connection and virtual channel, is a connection oriented communication service that is delivered by means of packet mode communication.
After a connection or virtual circuit is established between two nodes or application processes, a bit stream or byte stream may be delivered between the nodes; a virtual circuit protocol allows higher level protocols to avoid dealing with the division of data into segments, packets, or frames.
Virtual circuit communication resembles circuit switching, since both are connection oriented, meaning that in both cases data is delivered in correct order, and signaling overhead is required during a connection establishment phase. However, circuit switching provides constant bit rate and latency, while these may vary in a virtual circuit service due to factors such as:
varying packet queue lengths in the network nodes,
varying bit rate generated by the application,
varying load from other users sharing the same network resources by means of statistical multiplexing, etc.
The following were incorrect answers:
The other options presented correctly describes about packet switching.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 265
NEW QUESTION 477
When reviewing an organization's information security policies, an IS auditor should verify that the policies have been defined PRIMARILY on the basis of
- A. a risk management process
- B. industry best practices
- C. past information security incidents
- D. an information security framework
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 478
The most common problem in the operation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) is:
- A. the detection of false positives.
- B. reject-error rates.
- C. receiving trap messages.
- D. denial-of-service attacks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because of the configuration and the way IDS technology operates, the main problem in operating IDSs is the recognition (detection) of events that are not really security incidents-false positives, the equivalent of a false alarm. An IS auditor needs to be aware of this and should check for implementation of related controls, such as IDS tuning, and incident handling procedures, such as the screening process to know if an event is a security incident or a false positive. Trap messages are generated by the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agents when an important event happens, but are not particularly related to security or IDSs. Reject-error rate is related to biometric technology and is not related to IDSs. Denial-of- service is a type of attack and is not a problem in the operation of IDSs.
NEW QUESTION 479
In the process of evaluating program change controls, an IS auditor would use source code comparison software to:
- A. detect a source program change made between acquiring a copy of the source and the comparison run.
- B. ensure that all changes made in the current source copy are detected.
- C. examine source program changes without information from IS personnel.
- D. confirm that the control copy is the current version of the production program.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An IS auditor has an objective, independent and relatively complete assurance of program changes because the source code comparison will identify changes. Choice B is incorrect, because the changes made since the acquisition of the copy are not included in the copy of the software. Choice C is incorrect, as an IS auditor will have to gain this assurance separately. Choice D is incorrect, because any changes made between the time the control copy was acquired and the source code comparison is made will not be detected.
NEW QUESTION 480
.Which of the following is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks?
- A. Implementing antivirus protection software on users' desktop computers
- B. Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy
- C. Inoculating systems with antivirus code
- D. Implementing antivirus content checking at all network-to-Internet gateways
Answer: B
Explanation:
Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks. All other antivirus prevention efforts rely upon decisions established and communicated via policy.
NEW QUESTION 481
Which of the following would be of MOST concern to an IS auditor reviewing a virtual private network (VPN) implementation? Computers on the network that are located:
- A. in employees' homes.
- B. at the enterprise's remote offices.
- C. on the enterprise's internal network.
- D. at the backup site.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One risk of a virtual private network (VPN) implementation is the chance of allowing high-risk computers onto the enterprise's network. All machines that are allowed onto the virtual network should be subject to the same security policy. Home computers are least subject to the corporate security policies, and therefore are high-risk computers. Once a computer is hacked and 'owned/ any network that trusts that computer is at risk. Implementation and adherence to corporate security policy is easier when all computers on the network are on the enterprise's campus. On an enterprise's internal network, there should be security policies in place to detect and halt an outside attack that uses an internal machine as a staging platform. Computers at the backup site are subject to the corporate security policy, and therefore are not high-risk computers. Computers on the network that are at the enterprise's remote offices, perhaps with different IS and security employees who have different ideas about security, are more risky than choices A and B, but obviously less risky than home computers.
NEW QUESTION 482
Which of the following software development methods is based on iterative and incremental development,
where requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration between self-organizing, cross-functional
teams?
- A. Rapid application development
- B. Agile Development
- C. Software prototyping
- D. Component based development
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Information System Acquisition, Development and Implementation
Explanation/Reference:
For your exam you should know below information about agile development:
Agile software development is a group of software development methods based on iterative and
incremental development, where requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration between self-
organizing, cross-functional teams. It promotes adaptive planning, evolutionary development and delivery, a
time-boxed iterative approach, and encourages rapid and flexible response to change. It is a conceptual
framework that promotes foreseen tight iterations throughout the development cycle.
Agile Development
The Agile Manifesto introduced the term in 2001. Since then, the Agile Movement, with all its values,
principles, methods, practices, tools, champions and practitioners, philosophies and cultures, has
significantly changed the landscape of the modern software engineering and commercial software
development in the Internet era.
Agile principles
The Agile Manifesto is based on twelve principles:
Customer satisfaction by rapid delivery of useful software
Welcome changing requirements, even late in development
Working software is delivered frequently (weeks rather than months)
Close, daily cooperation between business people and developers
Projects are built around motivated individuals, who should be trusted
Face-to-face conversation is the best form of communication (co-location)
Working software is the principal measure of progress
Sustainable development, able to maintain a constant pace
Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design
Simplicity-the art of maximizing the amount of work not done-is essential
Self-organizing teams
Regular adaptation to changing circumstances
What is Scrum?
Scrum is the most popular way of introducing Agility due to its simplicity and flexibility. Because of this
popularity, many organizations claim to be "doing Scrum" but aren't doing anything close to Scrum's actual
definition. Scrum emphasizes empirical feedback, team self-management, and striving to build properly
tested product increments within short iterations. Doing Scrum as it's actually defined usually comes into
conflict with existing habits at established non-Agile organizations.
The following were incorrect answers:
Software prototyping- Software prototyping, refers to the activity of creating prototypes of software
applications, i.e., incomplete versions of the software program being developed. It is an activity that can
occur in software development and is comparable to prototyping as known from other fields, such as
mechanical engineering or manufacturing.
Rapid application development (RAD) is a software development methodology that uses minimal planning
in favor of rapid prototyping. The "planning" of software developed using RAD is interleaved with writing the
software itself. The lack of extensive per-planning generally allows software to be written much faster, and
makes it easier to change requirements.
Component Based Development - It is a reuse-based approach to defining, implementing and composing
loosely coupled independent components into systems. This practice aims to bring about an equally wide-
ranging degree of benefits in both the short-term and the long-term for the software itself and for
organizations that sponsor such software.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014 Page number 194
NEW QUESTION 483
Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees?
- A. Fidelity coverage
- B. Extra expense
- C. Business interruption
- D. Errors and omissions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization. Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization.
NEW QUESTION 484
When conducting a follow-up of previous audit findings, an IS auditor is told by management that a
recommendation to make security changes to an application has not been implemented. The IS auditor
should FIRST determine whether:
- A. additional time to implement changes is needed.
- B. the recommendation should be re-issued.
- C. the issue should be escalated.
- D. the associated risk is still relevant.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 485
The advantage of a bottom-up approach to the development of organizational policies is that the policies:
- A. ensure consistency across the organization.
- B. are developed for the organization as a whole.
- C. will not conflict with overall corporate policy.
- D. are more likely to be derived as a result of a risk assessment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bottom-up approach begins by defining operational-level requirements and policies, which are derived and implemented as the result of risk assessments. Enterprise-level policies are subsequently developed based on a synthesis of existing operational policies. Choices A, C and D are advantages of a top-down approach for developing organizational policies. This approach ensures that the policies will not be in conflict with overall corporate policy and ensure consistency across the organization.
NEW QUESTION 486
What is the BEST control to address SOL injection vulnerabilities?
- A. Input validation
- B. Digital signatures
- C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
- D. Unicode translation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 487
During an audit of a reciprocal disaster recovery agreement between two companies, the IS auditor would be MOST concerned with the:
- A. allocation of resources during an emergency
- B. maintenance of hardware and software compatibility
- C. differences in IS policies and procedures
- D. frequency of system testing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 488
Which of the following is MOST likely to ensure that an organization's systems development meets its business objectives?
- A. A focus on strategic projects
- B. Segregation of systems development and testing
- C. A project plan with clearly identified requirements
- D. Business owner involvement
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 489
Which of the following activities should occur after a business impact analysis (BIA)?
- A. Identify threats to the IT environment
- B. Identify critical applications
- C. Review the computing and user environment
- D. Analyze recovery options
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 490
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for performing vulnerability assessments periodically?
- A. Management requires regular reports.
- B. The environment changes constantly.
- C. The current threat levels are being assessed.
- D. Technology risks must be mitigated.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
NEW QUESTION 491
During the planning stage of an IS audit, the PRIMARY goal of an IS auditor is to:
- A. specify appropriate tests.
- B. minimize audit resources.
- C. collect sufficient evidence.
- D. address audit objectives.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
ISACA auditing standards require that an IS auditor plan the audit work to address the audit objectives.
Choice B is incorrect because the auditor does not collect evidence in the planning stage of an audit.
Choices C and D are incorrect because they are not the primary goals of audit planning. The activities described in choices B, C and D are all undertaken to address audit objectives and are thus secondary to choice A.
NEW QUESTION 492
To achieve desired objectives, which of the following is MOST important to review when identifying potential areas of improvement in IT processes?
- A. Risk assessment results
- B. Current maturity level
- C. Compliance activity trends
- D. Past board minutes
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 493
......
Who Should Take CISA Certification Exam?
The ISACA CISA certification exam is suitable for anyone who wants to develop skills in auditing, controlling, and keeping the highest standards in information security. This exam was designed for IT and IS auditors who want to take a step further in their careers. It was also developed for assurance, control, and information security specialists. When it comes to eligibility requirements, ISACA is very clear in offering the right information. Therefore, candidates should demonstrate that they should have a minimum of 5 years of experience in IT or IS audit. They should also be skilled in control, assurance, or security. Besides, experience waivers are also possible and they can be of a maximum of 3 years.
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