Provide CompTIA 220-1102 Dumps Updated May 10, 2026 With 845 QA's
Latest 220-1102 Dumps for Success in Actual CompTIA Certified
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 (220-1102) is an essential certification exam for IT professionals who wish to validate their skills and knowledge in the field of IT support. It is the second part of the CompTIA A+ certification, which covers the fundamentals of computer technology, installation, and configuration of PCs, laptops, and related hardware, as well as basic networking concepts and security protocols. 220-1102 exam is designed to test the candidates' ability to troubleshoot and solve problems related to hardware, operating systems, and software applications.
NEW QUESTION # 120
A technician is troubleshooting a computer with a suspected short in the power supply. Which of the following is the FIRST step the technician should take?
- A. Place the PC on a grounded workbench.
- B. Put on an ESD strap
- C. Place components on an ESD mat.
- D. Disconnect the power before servicing the PC.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step a technician should take when troubleshooting a computer with a suspected short in the power supply is B.
Disconnect the power before servicing the PC. This is to prevent any electrical shock or damage to the components. A power supply can be dangerous even when unplugged, as capacitors can maintain a line voltage charge for a long time1. Therefore, it is important to disconnect the power cord and press the power button to discharge any residual power before opening the case2. The other steps are also important for safety and proper diagnosis, but they should be done after disconnecting the power.
NEW QUESTION # 121
After a computer upgrade at an imaging lab. the upgraded computers are not able to obtain an IP address. Which of the following is most likely the issue?
- A. The OS must be updated to be compatible with the imaging software.
- B. The switch Is only providing IPv6 addresses.
- C. The switch has port security enabled.
- D. The switch does not support multicast traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When upgraded computers are not able to obtain an IP address, the issue often lies in the network configuration. Here's a detailed explanation:
Option A: The switch is only providing IPv6 addresses.
This is unlikely because if the switch were providing IPv6 addresses, the devices would still receive an IP address, albeit an IPv6 one. The issue described indicates no IP address is being obtained at all.
Option B: The OS must be updated to be compatible with the imaging software.
This option is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Compatibility with imaging software would not prevent the devices from getting an IP address.
Option C: The switch has port security enabled.
Correct Answer. Port security on a switch restricts access based on MAC addresses. If the MAC addresses of the upgraded computers are not recognized or have not been added to the allowed list, the switch will not provide network access, resulting in the computers not obtaining an IP address.
Reference:
Option D: The switch does not support multicast traffic.
This is unrelated to obtaining an IP address. Multicast traffic deals with specific types of network communication and would not affect the basic DHCP IP address assignment process.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following would typically require the most computing resources from the host computer?
* Chrome OS
- A. macOS
- B. Linux
- C. Windows
- D. Android
Answer: D
Explanation:
Windows is the operating system that typically requires the most computing resources from the host computer, compared to the other options. Computing resources include hardware components such as CPU, RAM, disk space, graphics card, and network adapter. The minimum system requirements for an operating system indicate the minimum amount of computing resources needed to install and run the operating system on a computer. The higher the minimum system requirements, the more computing resources the operating system consumes.
According to the web search results, the minimum system requirements for Windows 10 and Windows 11 are as follows12:
* CPU: 1 GHz or faster with two or more cores (Windows 10); 1 GHz or faster with two or more cores on a compatible 64-bit processor (Windows 11)
* RAM: 1 GB for 32-bit or 2 GB for 64-bit (Windows 10); 4 GB (Windows 11)
* Disk space: 16 GB for 32-bit or 32 GB for 64-bit (Windows 10); 64 GB (Windows 11)
* Graphics card: DirectX 9 or later with WDDM 1.0 driver (Windows 10); DirectX 12 compatible with WDDM 2.0 driver (Windows 11)
* Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi (Windows 10); Ethernet or Wi-Fi that supports 5 GHz (Windows
11)
The minimum system requirements for macOS Ventura are as follows:
* CPU: Intel Core i3 or higher, or Apple M1 chip
* RAM: 4 GB
* Disk space: 35.5 GB
* Graphics card: Metal-capable
* Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Chrome OS are as follows:
* CPU: Intel Celeron or higher
* RAM: 2 GB
* Disk space: 16 GB
* Graphics card: Integrated
* Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Android are as follows:
* CPU: 1 GHz or higher
* RAM: 512 MB
* Disk space: 8 GB
* Graphics card: OpenGL ES 2.0
* Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
The minimum system requirements for Linux vary depending on the distribution, but a common example is Ubuntu, which has the following minimum system requirements:
* CPU: 2 GHz dual core processor or better
* RAM: 4 GB
* Disk space: 25 GB
* Graphics card: 1024 x 768 screen resolution
* Network adapter: Ethernet or Wi-Fi
Based on the comparison of the minimum system requirements, Windows has the highest requirements for CPU, RAM, disk space, and graphics card, while Chrome OS and Android have the lowest requirements.
macOS and Linux have moderate requirements, depending on the hardware and software configuration.
Therefore, Windows is the operating system that typically requires the most computing resources from the host computer.
References:
Windows, macOS, Chrome OS, or Linux: Which Operating System Is Right for You?1 Comparison of operating systems3 Windows 10 vs 11 Minimum System Requirements: Why Need a New One?2 macOS Monterey - Technical Specifications Chrome OS - Wikipedia Android - Wikipedia Installation/SystemRequirements - Community Help Wiki
NEW QUESTION # 123
A technician needs to establish a remote access session with a user who has a Windows workstation. The session must allow for simultaneous viewing of the workstation by both the user and technician. Which of the following remote access technologies should be used?
- A. SSH
- B. RDP
- C. MSRA
- D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
MSRA (Microsoft Remote Assistance) is a remote access technology that allows a technician to establish a session with a user who has a Windows workstation. The session allows for simultaneous viewing of the workstation by both the user and technician, as well as remote control and file transfer capabilities. RDP (remote desktop protocol) is another remote access technology, but it does not allow simultaneous viewing by default. VPN (virtual private network) and SSH (secure shell) are protocols that create secure tunnels between two devices over the internet, but they do not allow remote access sessions. Verified References: https://www.
comptia.org/blog/what-is-msra https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following technologies used for wireless networks provides the greatest security?
- A. Kerberos and SSL
- B. MAC filtering and WEP
- C. WPA3 and no password
- D. TLS 1.1 and MFA
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 125
A system drive is nearly full, and a technician needs to free up some space. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A. Disk Defragment
- B. Disk Cleanup
- C. Resource Monitor
- D. Disk Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a system drive is nearly full, the most appropriate tool to free up space is Disk Cleanup. This built-in Windows utility scans the drive and allows users to safely remove temporary files, system cache, recycle bin contents, and other unnecessary files that consume disk space. Resource Monitor provides detailed real-time system resource usage but does not free space. Disk Defragment reorganizes fragmented files to improve performance but does not delete data. Disk Management is used to partition and format drives but does not clean files. Disk Cleanup is a primary maintenance tool covered in the Core 2 operating system domain to manage storage and optimize system performance.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Welcome to your first day as a Fictional Company. LLC helpdesk employee. Please work the tickets in your helpdesk ticket queue.
Click on individual tickers to see the ticket details. View attachments to determine the problem.
Select the appropriate issue from the 'issue' drop-down menu. Then, select the MOST efficient resolution from the 'Resolution' drop-down menu. Finally, select the proper command or verification to remediate or confirm your fix of the issue from the Verify Resolve drop-down menu.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 127
A developer reports that a workstation's database file extensions have been changed from .db to .enc. The developer is also unable to open the database files manually. Which of the following is the best option for recovering the data?
Accessing a restore point
- A. Rebooting into safe mode
- B. Utilizing the backups
- C. Using an AV to scan the affected files
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question suggests that the workstation has been infected by a ransomware, which is a type of malware that encrypts the files on the target system and demands a ransom for the decryption key12. The file extension .enc is commonly used by some ransomware variants to mark the encrypted files34. The developer is unable to open the database files manually because they are encrypted and require the decryption key, which is usually held by the attacker.
The best option for recovering the data is to utilize the backups, assuming that the backups are recent, valid, and not affected by the ransomware. Backups are copies of the data that are stored in a separate location or device, and can be used to restore the data in case of a disaster, such as a ransomware attack . By restoring the data from the backups, the developer can avoid paying the ransom and losing the data permanently.
Accessing a restore point is not a good option, because restore points are snapshots of the system settings and configuration, not the data files. Restore points can help to undo some system changes, such as installing a faulty driver or software, but they cannot recover the encrypted data files .
Rebooting into safe mode is also not a good option, because safe mode is a diagnostic mode that allows the system to run with minimal drivers and services, but it does not affect the data files. Safe mode can help to troubleshoot some system issues, such as malware infections, but it cannot decrypt the data files .
Using an AV to scan the affected files is also not a good option, because an AV is a software that can detect and remove some malware, but it cannot decrypt the data files. An AV can help to prevent or remove some ransomware infections, but it cannot recover the encrypted data files .
Reference1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 10 2: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Complete Video Course, Lesson 26 Documentation 3: How to remove .enc file virus (Ransomware virus removal guide) 4: Enc File Extension - What is an .enc file and how do I open it? : CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 13 : CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Complete Video Course, Lesson 26 Documentation : What is a restore point? : How to use System Restore on Windows 10 : [What is Safe Mode?] : [How to boot into Safe Mode on Windows 10] : CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 10 : [Can antivirus software remove ransomware?]
NEW QUESTION # 128
A technician is troubleshooting a mobile device that was dropped. The technician finds that the screen (ails to rotate, even though the settings are correctly applied. Which of the following pieces of hardware should the technician replace to resolve the issue?
- A. Digitizer
- B. LCD
- C. Accelerometer
- D. Battery
Answer: C
Explanation:
The piece of hardware that the technician should replace to resolve the issue of the screen failing to rotate on a mobile device that was dropped is the accelerometer. The accelerometer is a sensor that detects the orientation and movement of the mobile device by measuring the acceleration forces acting on it. The accelerometer allows the screen to rotate automatically according to the position and angle of the device. If the accelerometer is damaged or malfunctioning, the screen may not rotate properly or at all, even if the settings are correctly applied. LCD stands for Liquid Crystal Display and is a type of display that uses liquid crystals and backlight to produce images on the screen. LCD is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the quality and brightness of the display. Battery is a component that provides power to the mobile device by storing and releasing electrical energy. Battery is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the battery life and performance of the device. Digitizer is a component that converts touch inputs into digital signals that can be processed by the mobile device. Digitizer is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the touch sensitivity and accuracy of the display. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.5
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following is used to detect and record access to restricted areas?
- A. Fence
- B. Badge readers
- C. Bollards
- D. Video surveillance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Badge readers are devices that scan employee or visitor credentials, logging entries and exits from restricted areas. Video surveillance (B) provides a visual record but does not directly control access. Bollards (A) and fences (D) provide physical security but cannot detect or record access events.
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following filesystem formats would be the BEST choice to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems?
- A. FAT32
- B. CDFS
- C. ext4
- D. APFS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best filesystem format to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems is FAT32. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32-bit and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using 32-bit clusters. FAT32 is compatible with most Microsoft operating systems since Windows 95 OSR2, as well as other operating systems such as Linux and Mac OS X. FAT32 can support storage devices up to 2TB in size and files up to
4GB in size. APFS stands for Apple File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using encryption, snapshots and cloning features. APFS is compatible with Mac OS X 10.13 High Sierra and later versions but not with Microsoft operating systems natively. Ext4 stands for Fourth Extended File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using journaling, extents and delayed allocation features. Ext4 is compatible with Linux operating systems but not with Microsoft operating systems natively.
NEW QUESTION # 131
A call center handles inquiries into billing issues for multiple medical facilities. A security analyst notices that call center agents often walk away from their workstations, leaving patient data visible for anyone to see.
Which of the following should a network administrator do to BEST prevent data theft within the call center?
- A. Install privacy screens.
- B. Encrypt the workstation hard drives.
- C. Lock the workstations after five minutes of inactivity.
- D. Log off the users when their workstations are not in use.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST solution for preventing data theft within the call center in this scenario would be to lock the workstations after a period of inactivity. This would prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing patient data if call center agents were to step away from their workstations without logging out.
NEW QUESTION # 132
A user is setting up a new Windows 10 laptop. Which of the following Windows settings should be used to input the SSID and password?
- A. Personalization
- B. Accounts
- C. Network & Internet
- D. System
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Network & Internet settings in Windows 10 allow the user to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network, as well as manage other network-related options, such as airplane mode, mobile hotspot, VPN, proxy, etc1. To access the Network & Internet settings, the user can select the Start button, then select Settings > Network & Internet2. Alternatively, the user can right-click the Wi-Fi icon on the taskbar and click "Open Network & Internet Settings"3.
The System settings in Windows 10 allow the user to configure the display, sound, notifications, power, storage, and other system-related options1. The Personalization settings in Windows 10 allow the user to customize the background, colors, lock screen, themes, fonts, and other appearance-related options1. The Accounts settings in Windows 10 allow the user to manage the user accounts, sign-in options, sync settings, and other account-related options1. None of these settings can be used to input the SSID and password of a Wi-Fi network.
Reference:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide1, page 221, 222, 223, 224.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A network technician is deploying a new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server. The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 and is unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Which of the following would restore communication?
Static entry
- A. ARP table
- B. APIPA address
- C. NTP specification
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static entry is the best option to restore communication for the new machine in a small branch office that does not have a DHCP server. A static entry means manually configuring the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server for the network adapter of the machine. A static entry ensures that the machine has a valid and unique IP address that matches the network configuration and can communicate with the rest of the network.
The new machine automatically receives the IP address of 169.254.0.2 because it uses APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing), which is a feature that enables computers to self-assign an IP address when a DHCP server is not available. However, APIPA only works for local communication within the same subnet, and does not provide a default gateway or a DNS server. Therefore, the new machine is unable to communicate with the rest of the network, which may be on a different subnet or require a gateway or a DNS server to access.
The other options are not related to restoring communication for the new machine. ARP table is a cache that stores the mapping between IP addresses and MAC addresses for the devices on the network. NTP specification is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of the devices on the network.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives1
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide2
What is APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)? - Study-CCNA3
How to Configure a Static IP Address in Windows and OS X4
NEW QUESTION # 134
A technician receives a call from a user who is unable to open Outlook. The user states that Outlook worked fine yesterday, but the computer may have restarted sometime overnight. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason Outlook has stopped functioning?
- A. Operating system update
- B. Spam filter installation
- C. Invalid registry settings
- D. Malware infection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Operating system updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with some applications, such as Outlook, that may prevent them from opening or working properly. This can happen if the update changes some system files or settings that Outlook relies on, or if the update conflicts with some Outlook add-ins or extensions. To fix this, the technician can try some of these troubleshooting steps:
Start Outlook in safe mode and disable add-ins. Safe mode is a way of starting Outlook without any add-ins or extensions that may interfere with its functionality. To start Outlook in safe mode, press and hold the Ctrl key while clicking on the Outlook icon. You should see a message asking if you want to start Outlook in safe mode. Click Yes. If Outlook works fine in safe mode, it means one of the add-ins is causing the problem. To disable add-ins, go to File > Options > Add-ins. In the Manage drop-down list, select COM Add-ins and click Go. Uncheck any add-ins that you don't need and click OK. Restart Outlook normally and check if the issue is resolved4.
Create a new Outlook profile. A profile is a set of settings and information that Outlook uses to manage your email accounts and data. Sometimes, a profile can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To create a new profile, go to Control Panel > Mail > Show Profiles. Click Add and follow the instructions to set up a new profile with your email account. Make sure to select the option to use the new profile as the default one. Restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved5.
Repair your Outlook data files. Data files are files that store your email messages, contacts, calendar events, and other items on your computer. Sometimes, data files can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To repair your data files, you can use a tool called scanpst.exe, which is located in the same folder where Outlook is installed (usually C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\root\Office16).
To use scanpst.exe, close Outlook and locate the tool in the folder. Double-click on it and browse to the location of your data file . Select the file and click Start to begin the scanning and repairing process. When it's done, restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved.
Run the /resetnavpane command. The navigation pane is the panel on the left side of Outlook that shows your folders and accounts. Sometimes, the navigation pane can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To reset the navigation pane, press Windows key + R to open the Run dialog box, or open the Command Prompt. Type outlook.exe /resetnavpane and hit Enter. This will clear and regenerate the navigation pane settings for Outlook. Restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved.
NEW QUESTION # 135
As a corporate technician, you are asked to evaluate several suspect email messages on a client's computer. Corporate policy requires he following:
. All phishing attempts must be reported.
. Future spam emails to users must be prevented.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review each email and perform the
following within the email:
. Classify the emails
. Identify suspicious items, if applicable, in each email
. Select the appropriate resolution
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Full solution in Explanation below.
Explanation:
Classification: a) Phishing
This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to trick the user into clicking on a malicious link that could compromise their account or personal information. Some suspicious items in this email are:
* The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name.
* The email has spelling errors, such as "unusal" and "Locaked".
* The email uses a sense of urgency and fear to pressure the user into clicking on the link.
* The email does not match the official format or domain of the IT Help Desk at CompTIA.
* The email has two black bat icons, which are not related to CompTIA or IT support.
The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not click on the link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.
The suspicious items to select are:
* b) From address
* d) Hyperlinks
These items indicate that the email is not from a legitimate source and that the link is potentially malicious.
The other items are not suspicious in this case, as the to address is the user's own email and there are no attachments.
Classification: b) Spam
This email is a spam email, as it is an unsolicited and unwanted message that tries to persuade the user to participate in a survey and claim a reward. Some suspicious items in this email are:
* The email offers a free wireless headphone as an incentive, which is too good to be true.
* The email does not provide any details about the survey company, such as its name, address, or contact information.
* The email contains an external survey link, which may lead to a malicious or fraudulent website.
* The email does not have an unsubscribe option, which is required by law for commercial emails.
The appropriate resolution for this email is C. Unsubscribe. The user should look for an unsubscribe link or button at the bottom of the email and follow the instructions to opt out of receiving future emails from the sender. The user should also mark the email as spam or junk in their email client, which will help filter out similar emails in the future. The user should not click on the survey link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or financial information.
Classification: c) Legitimate
This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, the attachment, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can open the attachment and review the orientation material as instructed. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.
Classification: a) Phishing
This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to deceive the user into downloading and running a malicious attachment that could compromise their system or data. Some suspicious items in this email are:
* The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name or username.
* The email has an urgent tone and claims that a security patch needs to be installed immediately.
* The email has an attachment named "patch1.exe", which is an executable file that could contain malware or ransomware.
* The email does not match the official format or domain of CompTIA Information Security.
The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not open the attachment, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt.
The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.
Classification: c) Legitimate
This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can reply to the email and thank the sender for the interview opportunity. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A user needs to test several software replacement possibilities. Part of the process involves installing the different software options on a corporate-imaged sandboxed PC. Which of the following is the best option to allow the user to install the required software?
- A. Let the user use credentials from another user who has rights.
- B. Add the user to the local Administrators group.
- C. Give the user the local, high-privileged account password - Incorrect. This could allow unauthorized configuration changes.
- D. Make the user a member of Domain Admins.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
The best practice is to add the user to the local Administrators group, allowing them to install software on their own machine without giving them excessive permissions across the entire network.
A: Make the user a member of Domain Admins - Incorrect. This would give too much control over the network, creating a major security risk.
C: Let the user use credentials from another user who has rights - Incorrect. Sharing credentials violates security best practices.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A technician is installing RAM in a new workstation and needs to protect against electrostatic discharge.
Which of the following will best resolve this concern?
- A. Consistent power
- B. ESD strap
- C. Battery backup
- D. Thermal paste
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An ESD strap, also known as an antistatic wrist strap, is a device that prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) from damaging sensitive electronic components such as RAM. ESD is the sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical charges, which can cause permanent damage or malfunction to electronic devices. An ESD strap connects the technician's wrist to a grounded surface, such as a metal case or a mat, and equalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the device. Battery backup, thermal paste, and consistent power are not devices that can protect against ESD.
NEW QUESTION # 138
A systems administrator is experiencing Issues connecting from a laptop to the corporate network using PKI.
Which to the following tools can the systems administrator use to help remediate the issue?
- A. msconfig.exe
- B. certmgr.msc
- C. perfmon.msc
- D. lusrmgr.msc
Answer: B
Explanation:
certmgr.msc is a tool that can be used to troubleshoot issues with PKI (public key infrastructure) on a Windows machine. It allows a system administrator to view, manage and import certificates, as well as check their validity, expiration and revocation status. msconfig.exe, lusrmgr.msc and perfmon.msc are other tools that can be used for different purposes on a Windows machine, but they are not related to PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certmgr-msc https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 139
A company is looking lot a solution that provides a backup for all data on the system while providing the lowest impact to the network. Which of the following backup types will the company MOST likely select?
- A. Synthetic
- B. Differential
- C. Full
- D. Off-site
Answer: A
Explanation:
A synthetic backup is a backup type that provides a backup for all data on the system while providing the lowest impact to the network. It combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a single backup set, without requiring access to the original data source. Off-site is a backup location, not a backup type. Full and differential are backup types, but they have a higher impact on the network than synthetic. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-synthetic-backup https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 140
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