Free Sales Ending Soon - Use Real NCLEX-RN PDF Questions [Dec 22, 2021]
Updated Dec-2021 Exam NCLEX-RN Dumps - Pass Your Certification Exam
NEW QUESTION 235
A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis. Results of arterial blood gases are pH 7.2, PaO2 90, PaCO2 45, and HCO3 16. The nursing assessment of arterial blood gases indicate the presence of:
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Respiratory alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and low PaCO2. (B) Respiratory acidosis is determined by low pH and elevated PaCO2. (C) Metabolic alkalosis is determined by elevated pH and HCO3.(D) Metabolic acidosis is determined by low pH and HCO3.
NEW QUESTION 236
A 30-year-old client in the third trimester of her pregnancy asks the nurse for advice about upper respiratory discomforts. She complains of nasal stuffiness and epistaxis, most noticeable on the left side.
Which reply by the nurse is correct?
- A. "It sounds as though you are coming down with a bad cold. I'll ask the doctor to prescribe a decongestant for relief of symptoms."
- B. "A good vaporizer will help; avoid the cool air kind. Also, try saline nose drops, and spend less time on your left side."
- C. "These discomforts are all a result of increased blood supply; one of the pregnancy hormones, estrogen, causes them."
- D. "This is most unusual. I'm sure your obstetrician will want you to see an ENT (ear, nose, throat) specialist."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Decongestants may exaggerate the nasal stuffiness associated with pregnancy. Judicious use of decongestants and nasal sprays is advocated during pregnancy. (B) Cool air vaporizers and saline drops may help to relieve the nasal stuffiness. Positioning on either lateral side does not decrease nasal stuffiness or prevent epistaxis. (C) Increased estrogen levels result in nasal mucosa edema with subsequent nasal stuffiness. Estrogen also promotes vasodilation, which contributes to epistaxis. The nurse may recommend cool air vaporizers and saline drops to help with the nasal stuffiness. (D) Increased estrogen levels result in nasal mucosa edema with subsequent nasal stuffiness. Estrogen also promotes vasodilation discomforts associated with pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION 237
A client had a hemicolectomy performed 2 days ago. Today, when the nurse assesses the incision, a small part of the abdominal viscera is seen protruding through the incision. This complication of wound healing is known as:
- A. Excoriation
- B. Evisceration
- C. Decortication
- D. Dehiscence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Excoriation is abrasion of the epidermis or of the coating of any organ of the body by trauma, chemicals, burns, or other causes. (B) Dehiscence is a partial or complete separation of the wound edges with no protrusion of abdominal tissue. (C) Decortication is removal of the surface layer of an organ or structure. It is a type of surgery, such as removing the fibrinous peel from the visceral pleura in thoracic surgery. (D) Evisceration occurs when the incision separates and the contents of the cavity spill out.
NEW QUESTION 238
A 1-year-old child is to receive an IM injection ordered by his pediatrician. He has fallen asleep in his mother's arms when the nurse approaches. Which approach is most appropriate at this time?
- A. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the ventrogluteal site.
- B. Ask the mother to place the child on the examination table and leave the room, and then give the injection in an appropriate site.
- C. Give the injection in the vastus lateralis site before the child awakens.
- D. Awaken the child first and give the injection in the dorsogluteal site.
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If awakened first, the child will know that nothing painful will be done without the child being alerted. (B) The ventrogluteal site is a safe site for children because it is a large muscle free of major nerves and blood vessels. (C) The dorsogluteal site is not recommended in children who have not been walking for at least 1 year because the muscle is not fully developed. (D) The parent will be able to offer support and comfort during and after the injection.
NEW QUESTION 239
A client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa reluctantly agrees to eat all prescribed meals. The most important intervention in monitoring her dietary compliance would be to:
- A. Allow her privacy at mealtimes
- B. Encourage her to eat in moderation, choose foods that she likes, and avoid foods that she dislikes
- C. Praise her for eating everything
- D. Observe behavior for 1-2 hours after meals to prevent vomiting
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Eating alone is not recommended for anorexic clients because they tend to hoard food instead of eating it. (B) The client should be praised for whatever she eats, which is usually a small portion or percentage of what is served. Praise should not be withheld until she eats everything. (C) The client should be observed eyeto- eye for at least 1 hour following meals to prevent discarding food stashed in her clothing at mealtime or engaging in selfinduced vomiting. (D) If offered these choices, the client would choose low-caloric foods, not a nutritious diet.
NEW QUESTION 240
Following a gastric resection, which of the following actions would the nurse reinforce with the client in order to alleviate the distress from dumping syndrome?
- A. Eating three large meals a day
- B. Eating a low-carbohydrate diet
- C. Taking a long walk after meals
- D. Drinking small amounts of liquids with meals
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Six small meals are recommended. (B) Liquids after meals increase the time food empties from the stomach. (C) Lying down after meals is recommended to prevent gravity from producing dumping. (D) A low- carbohydrate diet will prevent a hypertonic bolus, which causes dumping.
NEW QUESTION 241
The nurse is teaching a 10-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic how to administer insulin. Which one of the following steps must be taught for insulin administration?
- A. Never use abdominal site for a rotation site.
- B. Pinch the skin up to form a subcutaneous pocket.
- C. Change needles after injection.
- D. Avoid applying pressure after injection.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 242
A depressed client is seen at the mental health center for follow-up after an attempted suicide 1 week ago. She has taken phenelzine sulfate (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, for 7 straight days. She states that she is not feeling any better. The nurse explains that the drug must accumulate to an effective level before symptoms are totally relieved. Symptom relief is expected to occur within:
- A. 2-4 weeks
- B. 10 days
- C. 2 months
- D. 3 months
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. (B) This answer is correct. Because MAO inhibitors are slow to act, it takes 2-4 weeks before improvement of symptoms is noted. (C) This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. (D) This answer is incorrect. Therapeutic effects of the medication are noted within 1 month of drug therapy.
NEW QUESTION 243
A client is pregnant with her second child. Her last menstrual period began on January 15. Her expected date of delivery would be:
- A. October 22
- B. October 15
- C. October 29
- D. October 8
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Incorrect application of Nagele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but subtracted 7 days rather than added. (B) Incorrect application of Nagele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but did not add 7 days. (C) Correct application of Nagele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months and added 7 days. (D) Incorrect application of Nagele's rule: correctly subtracted 3 months but added 14 days instead of 7 days.
NEW QUESTION 244
A 47-year-old client has been admitted to the general surgery unit for bowel obstruction. The doctor has ordered that an NG tube be inserted to aid in bowel de-compression. When preparing to insert a NG tube, the nurse measures from the:
- A. Tip of the nose to the ear lobe to the xiphoid process or midepigastric area
- B. Tip of the nose to the lower lip to the umbilicus
- C. Lower lip to the shoulder to the upper sternum
- D. End of the tube to the first measurement line on the tube
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) This measurement is 50 cm (48-49 cm). Fifty centimeters is considered the length necessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach. This measurement is too short. (B) This measurement is 50 cm (47-48 cm). Fifty centimeters is considered the length necessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach. This measurement is too short. (C) This measurement gives an approximate indication of the length necessary for the distal end of the tube to be in place in the stomach, but it is not as accurate as actually measuring the client (nose-earxiphoid). (D) This is the correct measurement of 50 cm from the tip of the client's nose to the tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process (called the NEX [nose-ear-xiphoid] measurement).
It is approximately equal to the distance necessary for the distal end of the tube to be located in the correct position in the stomach.
NEW QUESTION 245
A couple is planning the conception of their first child. The wife, whose normal menstrual cycle is 34 days in length, correctly identifies the time that she is most likely to ovulate if she states that ovulation should occur on day:
- A. 16+2 days
- B. 14+2 days
- C. 22+2 days
- D. 20+2 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Ovulation is dependent on average length of menstrual cycle, not standard 14 days. (B) Ovulation occurs
14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 16). (C) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 equals 20). (D) Ovulation occurs 14+2 days before next menses (34 minus 14 does not equal 22).
NEW QUESTION 246
A psychiatric client has been stabilized and is to be discharged. The nurse will recognize client insight and behavioral change by which of the following client statements?
- A. "When I get home, I should be able to taper myself off the Haldol because the voices are gone now."
- B. "When I get home, I will need to take my medicines and call my therapist if I have any side effects or begin to hear voices."
- C. "As soon as I leave here, I'm throwing away my medicines. I never thought I needed them anyway."
- D. "If I have any side effects from my medicines, I will take an extra dose of Cogentin."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set G
Explanation:
(A) The client verbalizes that he is responsible for compliance and keeping the treatment team member informed of progress. This behavior puts him at the lowest risk for relapse. (B) Noncompliance is a major cause of relapse. This statement reflects lack of responsibility for his own health maintenance. (C) This statement reflects lack of insight into the importance of compliance. (D) This statement reflects no insight into his illness or his responsibility in health maintenance.
NEW QUESTION 247
Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following when assessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern. Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?
- A. A ham and cheese sandwich
- B. Fresh fruit
- C. A milkshake
- D. Saltine crackers and peanut butter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) High levels of ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, can precipitate metabolic encephalopathy.
These clients need a diet high in carbohydrates and bulk. (B) Metabolic encephalopathy of the brain associated with liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism. (C, D) Metabolic encephalopathy in liver failure is precipitated by elevated ammonia levels.
Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism.
NEW QUESTION 248
A client is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to locate a cerebral lesion. It is important for the nurse to find out if he has a(n):
- A. Allergy to seafood
- B. Pin or screw in any bone
- C. History of seizures
- D. Movable metal implant
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Iodine is not used as a contrast medium for MRI. It is important to inquire about allergy to seafood if the client is to have an arteriogram or enhanced computer tomography. (B) MRI is safe if seizures are under control. It is more important to inquire about movable metal implants. (C) Clients with movable metal implants such as shrapnel or aneurysm clips or clients with permanent pacemakers or implanted pumps can be traumatized during an MRI. (D) Nonmovable metal prostheses or hardware will not cause trauma during an MRI.
NEW QUESTION 249
A psychiatric nurse is providing an orientation to a new staff nurse. She reminds the nurse that psychiatrists often use categories of medications and that it is important that she recall that some categories of medications have synonyms. Another name used to describe minor tranquilizers is which of the following?
- A. Antianxiety medications
- B. Antimania medication
- C. Antipsychotic medications
- D. Antidepressant medications
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Antipsychotic medications are also known as major tranquilizers. (B) Antidepressants fall into different categories, such as the tricyclics or the MAO inhibitors. (C) Antianxiety medications are also known as minor tranquilizers. (D) Antimania medications are those such as lithium and lithium carbonate (Lithobid).
NEW QUESTION 250
A 48-year-old client is being seen in her physician's office for complaints of indigestion, heartburn, right upper quadrant pain, and nausea of 4 days' duration, especially after meals. The nurse realizes that these symptoms may be associated with cholecystitis and therefore would check for which specific sign during the abdominal assessment?
- A. Cullen's sign
- B. Murphy's sign
- C. Rebound tenderness
- D. Turner's sign
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) This sign is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus found in clients who have hemorrhagic pancreatitis. (B) This sign indicates areas of inflammation within the peritoneum, such as with appendicitis. It is a deep palpation technique used on a nontender area of the abdomen, and when the palpating hand is removed suddenly, the client experiences a sharp, stabbing pain at an area of peritoneal inflammation. (C) This sign is considered positive with acute cholecystitis when the client is unable to take a deep breath while the right upper quadrant is being deeply palpated. The client will elicit a sudden, sharp gasp, which means the gallbladder is acutely inflamed. (D) This is a sign of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis and manifests as a green or purple discoloration in the flanks.
NEW QUESTION 251
A nurse is taking a maternal history for a client at her first prenatal visit. Her pregnancy test was positive, she has two living children, she had one spontaneous abortion, and one infant died at the age of 3 months. Which of the following best describes the client at the present?
- A. Gravida 5, para 3, ab 1
- B. Gravida 4, para 2, ab 1
- C. Gravida 4, para 3, ab 0
- D. Gravida 5, para 4, ab 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This individual has been pregnant four times, delivered two children, and had one abortion. (B) Your client has been pregnant five times, delivered three children, and had one abortion. (C) This individual has been pregnant five times, delivered four children, and has not had an abortion. (D) This individual has been pregnant four times, delivered three children, and has not had an abortion.
NEW QUESTION 252
Children often experience visual impairments. Refractive errors affect the child's visual activity. The main refractive error seen in children is myopia. The nurse explains to the child's parents that myopia may also be described as:
- A. Lazy eye
- B. Farsightedness
- C. Cataracts
- D. Nearsightedness
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Cataracts are not considered refractive errors. Cataracts canbe described as opacity of the lens.
(B)Hyperopiais the term forfarsightedness. One can see objects at a distance more clearlythan close objects.
(C)Myopiais the term for nearsightedness.Objects that are close in distance are more clearly seen. (D) Lazyeye refers to strabismus or misalignment of the eyes.
NEW QUESTION 253
The nurse needs to be aware that the most common early complication of a myocardial infarction is:
- A. Anaphylactic shock
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Cardiac hypertrophy
- D. Cardiac dysrhythmia
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Diabetes mellitus is not a common complication of myocardial infarction. (B) Anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction. (C) Cardiac hypertrophy is a late potential complication. It is a common complication of congestive heart failure. (D) Myocardial infarction causes tissue damage, which may interrupt electrical impulses. Myocardial irritability results from lack of oxygenated tissue.
NEW QUESTION 254
A female client was recently diagnosed with gastric cancer. She entered the hospital and had a total gastrectomy with esophagojejunostomy. Her postoperative recovery was uneventful. On conducting discharge teaching, the nurse discusses changes in bodily function and lifestyle changes with the client. In order to prevent pernicious anemia, the nurse stresses that the client must:
- A. Receive monthly blood transfusions
- B. Eat small quantities several times daily until she is able to tolerate food in moderate portions
- C. Increase the amount of iron in her diet
- D. Understand the need for Vitamin B12 replacement therapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Monthly blood transfusions are not indicated postgastrectomy. (B) Increasing iron in the client's diet may cause irritation and will not alleviate pernicious anemia. (C) It may be necessary that the client eat small meals several times per day, but this measure has no relevance to prevention of pernicious anemia. (D) Pernicious anemia is caused by lack of Vitamin B12, and replacement therapy will be necessary because the client's stomach has been removed.
NEW QUESTION 255
......
NCLEX-RN Dumps To Pass NCLEX Certification Exam in One Day : https://www.test4sure.com/NCLEX-RN-pass4sure-vce.html
Latest Real NCLEX NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1I85BC6hPnSHbUF4dkF4TT1WxPYG3aL2h